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(Solved): 1. Show that f((x, y)) = {x/y if y#0 is a map from R to R which satisfies (av) = af (v) but ...


1. Show that f((x, y)) = {x/y if y#0 is a map from R² to R which satisfies ƒ(av) = afƒ (v) but 0 it is not linear. (Here, v =

1. Show that f((x, y)) = {x/y if y#0 is a map from R² to R which satisfies ƒ(av) = afƒ (v) but 0 it is not linear. (Here, v = (x,y).)


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